Only God is omnipresent. An angel cannot be omnipresent. A man cannot be omnipresent. But God's Spirit is omnipresent. And the Bible says that Christ is in you and He is in me, if we believe. The Spirit of Christ is in all believers all over the world. Therefore, Christ - the Spirit of Christ - is omnipresent. Therefore, Christ is not a mere angel nor a mere man - Christ is divine. Jesus is God!
If someone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Him. To receive the Spirit of Christ, you have to believe that it is possible for all believers all around the world to receive Him. In order to believe that to be possible, you have to believe that Jesus is divine. He's not just an angel - not just a man. Jesus is God.
Jesus is equal with God in one sense - and yet in another sense He said the Father is greater than He and most often the title God goes to the Father. Yet Jesus Christ is God in every sense. And there is only one God. In order to be saved, this needs to be believed in the heart, even though one might not be able to explain it with his understanding.
Showing posts with label jehovah's witnesses. Show all posts
Showing posts with label jehovah's witnesses. Show all posts
Friday, 11 November 2011
Jesus - God's Firstborn
"Also I will make him my firstborn, higher than the kings of the earth" - Psalm 89:27
The Scripture prophesied that God would make Him (Jesus) His firstborn. If the clause "...make him my firstborn..." referred to the time when Jesus was to begin His existence, the Scripture would not have said "...I will make him my firstborn..." - it would have simply said, he will be born.
But notice it didn't just say Jesus would be born - it says He would make Him something - make Him His firstborn. To make somebody something, the person has to already be in existence!
"...make him my firstborn..." is a clause that looked forward to the future, not back to the past. Therefore the clause could not have referred to some past event before the creation of the heavens and the earth at which time Jehovah's Witnesses allege Jesus began His existence.
Neither can the clause infer that Jesus' virgin-birth was the beginning of His existence - because someone has to already be in existence before you can make him something.
Jesus has existed eternally with the Father, and the Scripture prophesied that God would make Him His firstborn. To make Him His firstborn means that although Jesus pre-existed eternally with God, God sent Him into the world as the only person ever to be born of a virgin, and that God would demonstrate that He (Jesus) is indeed the eternal Son of God - that Jesus existed eternally and that Jesus is Himself God. It means that God would demonstrate Jesus' pre-eminence not only on the basis of His pre-existence, not only on the basis of His person, but also on the basis of God's unfolding plan, and also on the basis of Jesus' own conquest by the will of God.
The Scriptures therefore support that Jesus has always existed and that Jesus is God.
The Scripture prophesied that God would make Him (Jesus) His firstborn. If the clause "...make him my firstborn..." referred to the time when Jesus was to begin His existence, the Scripture would not have said "...I will make him my firstborn..." - it would have simply said, he will be born.
But notice it didn't just say Jesus would be born - it says He would make Him something - make Him His firstborn. To make somebody something, the person has to already be in existence!
"...make him my firstborn..." is a clause that looked forward to the future, not back to the past. Therefore the clause could not have referred to some past event before the creation of the heavens and the earth at which time Jehovah's Witnesses allege Jesus began His existence.
Neither can the clause infer that Jesus' virgin-birth was the beginning of His existence - because someone has to already be in existence before you can make him something.
Jesus has existed eternally with the Father, and the Scripture prophesied that God would make Him His firstborn. To make Him His firstborn means that although Jesus pre-existed eternally with God, God sent Him into the world as the only person ever to be born of a virgin, and that God would demonstrate that He (Jesus) is indeed the eternal Son of God - that Jesus existed eternally and that Jesus is Himself God. It means that God would demonstrate Jesus' pre-eminence not only on the basis of His pre-existence, not only on the basis of His person, but also on the basis of God's unfolding plan, and also on the basis of Jesus' own conquest by the will of God.
The Scriptures therefore support that Jesus has always existed and that Jesus is God.
Wednesday, 27 April 2011
Bible Greek and John 1:1
It's not true that Bible-Greek contained no articles. New Testament Greek contained the definite article.
So in John 1:1 where it says: "...and the Word was God" if anyone wants to claim there should have been an article placed before God, it could only have been the definite article the and not an indefinite article a - because no such indefinite article existed as a preposition, in Bible-Greek. The Bible is clear that there is only one God - double reason not to take the article as indefinite, even if an article need be used at all here.
In actual fact, Bible-Greek did indicate the indefinite article - by changing the way a noun ends - not by a preposition. And no such noun-ending is used in John 1:1. Therefore The New World Translation is incorrect. The Word was not merely a god - the Word was indeed God.
Jesus is God!
So in John 1:1 where it says: "...and the Word was God" if anyone wants to claim there should have been an article placed before God, it could only have been the definite article the and not an indefinite article a - because no such indefinite article existed as a preposition, in Bible-Greek. The Bible is clear that there is only one God - double reason not to take the article as indefinite, even if an article need be used at all here.
In actual fact, Bible-Greek did indicate the indefinite article - by changing the way a noun ends - not by a preposition. And no such noun-ending is used in John 1:1. Therefore The New World Translation is incorrect. The Word was not merely a god - the Word was indeed God.
Jesus is God!
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