I like to take a popular or controversial Bible verse, read the whole book of the Bible in which it occurs in one sitting, then see what meaning naturally springs to mind when arriving at the verse in context.
One such verse is, "So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy" (Romans 9:16). Controversy between Calvinists and Armenians has raged over this verse for centuries.
But the meaning that seemed to spring naturally to my mind after considering the context was that Paul was defending God's sovereign right to extend His mercy to believing Gentiles, not exclusively to Jews. Paul was defending God's prerogative to set FAITH - and not nationality - as the prerequisite for salvation. That was a plan, Paul explained, which did not originate with man's will but with God - it was not without precedent in Scripture and it was an outcome that had already been foreseen by the prophets. Since the Roman believers therefore stood by mercy and faith alone, they should both be grateful and fear.
This doesn't merely answer the whole Calvinist/Armenian question - it totally eliminates any basis in these verses for the very question itself in the first place!
What do you think - am I missing something?
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