"Immediately after the tribulation of those days" meant immediately covenantally, more so than immediately by the calendar. It meant there was nothing else of significance to happen in between the tribulation and His coming.
But what was that tribulation? Was it the suffering of the Jews in AD70 only? Is it a future 'Great Tribulation'? It was indeed the suffering of the Jews - but it is also the "distress upon the nations" which has been happening ever since and which will continue until He comes!
Therefore His coming will occur immediately after the tribulation of those days - in every sense immediately after - both covenantally and by the calendar. We just don't know how many calendar pages that tribulation will take up. During that whole time, the Gospel will also continue to be preached among all nations - and then the end shall come.
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