If the purpose of tongues was exclusively for a sign to Jews, then the Holy Spirit should have made sure that He only ever gave a person utterance to speak in a tongue that was known by Jews in the audience.
But instead, irrespective of the fact that the word [unknown] was not in the Greek text of I Cor.14, it is evident that it often happened in Bible-times that the Holy Spirit gave utterance in a tongue that was not known by anyone in the audience - not even by Jews in the audience.
If that was not the case, then Paul would not have said of a person who speaks with a tongue, that "...no man understandeth him...". He would never have needed to urge the speaker to "...pray that he may interpret..." In fact, there should never have been any need for the supernatural gift of "...the interpretation of tongues..." in the first place.
So it's quite Scriptural for a tongue to sometimes be unknown to the audience. It could be a tongue "...of men..." known elsewhere, or it could be a tongue "...of angels...", or it could be what Jesus called "...new tongues..."
And the Bible does not say that tongues have ceased. If tongues have ceased, then prophecy should have ceased also - but the Book of Revelation describes prophesying taking place right up until the end! And Joel prophesied that people would see visions and prophesy and that there would be signs and wonders, right up until the day of the Lord.
Plus, the canonization of the New Testament wasn't the event that enabled Paul to finally "...know even as I am known..." He already knew everything that was later compiled into the New Testament canon - because he himself had written most of it! "That which is perfect..." is therefore probably none other than the coming of the Lord and His kingdom, when God's will is finally perfectly done on earth as it is in heaven, and when we shall see face to face.
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