"Also I will make him my firstborn, higher than the kings of the earth" - Psalm 89:27
The Scripture prophesied that God would make Him (Jesus) His firstborn. If the clause "...make him my firstborn..." referred to the time when Jesus was to begin His existence, the Scripture would not have said "...I will make him my firstborn..." - it would have simply said, he will be born.
But notice it didn't just say Jesus would be born - it says He would make Him something - make Him His firstborn. To make somebody something, the person has to already be in existence!
"...make him my firstborn..." is a clause that looked forward to the future, not back to the past. Therefore the clause could not have referred to some past event before the creation of the heavens and the earth at which time Jehovah's Witnesses allege Jesus began His existence.
Neither can the clause infer that Jesus' virgin-birth was the beginning of His existence - because someone has to already be in existence before you can make him something.
Jesus has existed eternally with the Father, and the Scripture prophesied that God would make Him His firstborn. To make Him His firstborn means that although Jesus pre-existed eternally with God, God sent Him into the world as the only person ever to be born of a virgin, and that God would demonstrate that He (Jesus) is indeed the eternal Son of God - that Jesus existed eternally and that Jesus is Himself God. It means that God would demonstrate Jesus' pre-eminence not only on the basis of His pre-existence, not only on the basis of His person, but also on the basis of God's unfolding plan, and also on the basis of Jesus' own conquest by the will of God.
The Scriptures therefore support that Jesus has always existed and that Jesus is God.
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