Were Gentile Christians called Jews?
The New Testament speaks of "...Jews by nature..." in contrast with those who were born Gentiles (Gal.2:15).
It's true that under the Old Covenant many Gentiles "...became Jews..." that is, converts to Judaism (Esther 8:17).
But under the New Covenant, Gentiles were not made converts to Judaism. The Christian life was sharply contrasted with the life of the Jews (Galatians 2:14).
"...he is a Jew, which is one inwardly..." didn't expand the definition of Jew to include a Gentile believer in Jesus - in the context of that discussion it actually limited the definition of Jew to only a smaller group from within natural-born Jews.
"For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly...But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly" (Romans 2:29).
If we blur the parameters of the definitions Paul was using in that particular context, we lose the argument he was in the process of making.
Yes all believers in Jesus comprise a new, united entity - called the heavenly Jerusalem, mount Sion, the Church, the body of Christ (Heb.12:22).
But in explaining prophecy and its fulfilment, the New Testament writers always upheld the integrity of the distinction that existed in Bible-Prophecy between Israel and Gentiles.
The case for the Gospel was made by showing that there'd been the fulfilment in Israel of what had been promised to Israel.
What's it got to do with eschatology? Reading Old Testament prophecies about Israel, and overlooking the fact that they've already been fulfilled in Israel, could give someone some unfounded concepts of what must yet happen either in Israel or through the Church in future.
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