Monday 28 June 2010

Do You Have a Problem With Tongues?

I totally sympathize with the importance of waiting until we feel right in our faith and conscience about any spiritual practice - such as speaking in tongues - before proceeding. God is gentle, not abusive. He cares more for our conscience than the issue of tongues. So I hope this is nothing but helpful.

If it was the case that the purpose for speaking in tongues was exclusively so that foreigners in a meeting could hear their own language, then there would never have been a case where, “…no man understandeth him...” (I Cor. 14:2); no-one should ever have needed to “…pray that he may interpret” (verse 13); the gift of the “interpretation of tongues” should never have been needed in the church (I Cor. 12:10); and the circumstances which I Cor.14 was written to address could never even have existed.

Tongues were more-often-that-not unknown it seems - for Paul seemed to imply that the need for tongues to be interpreted in the church would be usual (I Cor. 14:27).

Despite tongues often being unknown, Paul conceded that a believer who had spoken in an [unknown] tongue (I Cor.14:2, 18), or prayed in the tongue (verses 2 & 14), or sang in the tongue (verse 15) or blessed in the tongue (verse 16) had nevertheless done so validly (verse 17).

Seeing tongues were usually unknown, a believer’s better options therefore were to: either pray that he may interpret (verse 13), or else speak privately to himself and to God (verse 28) - the former benefiting the church, due to having been made understandable (verse 5); the latter benefiting himself, despite not being understandable (verse 4).

But either way, the tongue itself was valid despite being unknown. Functionally therefore it didn’t matter that the tongues were often unknown. Speaking in tongues fulfilled a purpose even despite being unknown.

After all, Jesus had foretold that believers would “speak with new tongues” (Mark 16:17); Paul mentioned the gift of “[divers] kinds of tongues” (I Cor.12:10); and Paul even seemed to imply the potential for a believer to “speak with the tongues of men and of angels” (I Cor. 13:1).

Paul said that faith, hope, love, prophecies, tongues, and imperfect knowledge would remain until "that which is perfect has come". Could this really have happened sometime between the second century (when Iranaeus said tongues were still being spoken) and the fourth century (by which time Augustine was claiming that tongues had ceased)?

Well Paul had said, "...then shall I know [perfectly] even as I am known". Paul was no longer alive by the second century - so how could it have come to pass then that Paul would know perfectly at the time when that which is perfect would come? But Paul will be present in the resurrection!

Does anyone today have perfect knowledge? Has prophecy failed? Is faith no longer required? Is hope already fulfilled? Then "that which is perfect" has not come yet. Tongues hasn't ceased either.

(Besides, we don't know that there weren't ANY who spoke in tongues during Augustine's time. There may have been some, whom Augustine didn't now about.

But even if there were none who spoke in tongues, that doesn't necessarily become a basis for doctrine. The doctrine of justification by faith wasn't being taught widely during the Middle Ages either, but that didn't mean God had removed it permanently - God later restored the doctrine of justification, as He did the practice of speaking with tongues.

Scripture is the only basis for doctrine - not history, not post-Apostolic authors. If we claim that Paul's instructions about tongues in I Cor.14 are no longer relevant to the presentday church, then as much we may say we oppose dispensationalism, we are actually believing in two different dispensations for the church.

And if we in the present-day church are in a different dispensation to the early church, then the Bible should say, "The church is built [not only on] the foundation of the apostles and prophets...[but also on the foundation of the church-fathers]". - if it is the case that it is the conclusions of the church-fathers and not the instructions of Paul to the Corinthians in chapter fourteen that speak directly to the present-day church. In which case, the church-fathers should have foundational authority over the present-day church to interpret and apply the writings of the Epistles, and to instruct the present-day church - if tongues has ceased). Which is erroneous. There is only one church - one dispensation of the church - and the writings of the Apostles retain their authority and relevance during the entire church age. Therefore faith, hope, love, prophecies and tongues remain, while we are still growing in knowledge, awaiting for that which is perfect to come.

Those are my lay-person's thoughts. I could also speak about my own experiences with tongues. But this will suffice for now. Hope it helps.

And like I said at the beginning, it's everyone's peace of conscience that God cares about above all.

Love and blessings to you.

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