Friday 3 November 2017

Questions for Calvinists/Dispensationalists

If all mankind is so totally depraved that no-one can believe unless God intervenes by irresistibly making him believe, why would it have been necessary, in the case of Israel, for God to intervene to prevent them from believing, by blinding them, lest He would have saved them? If He didn't want to save Israel, couldn't He have just done nothing? Couldn't He have just left their total depravity to do its work, instead of having to intervene to prevent them from believing? lest He had to save them even though He didn't want to.

And why would it have been necessary that Israel wasn't saved, before He could save Gentiles? Couldn't the sovereign God just save the Gentiles anyway? What's the reason that God's sovereignty was subject to Israel?

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